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Tim Raben's avatar

Glad comments are back!

Has the court ever explicitly explained or blessed this defense of appellee vs appellant? Or is this just you two trying to come up with an explanation? (I.e. we are left to rationalize the courts behavior in the shadows)

I think there's still a big broader point to address which is that in this situation the chief was taking a more aggressive and conservative position while relying on facts outside the record and relying on factors (money damages) that aren't typically described as irreparable harm. I take this as a large data point against the chief being a moderate or someone who calls "balls and strikes" (a metaphor I've loathed since I first heard it).

As smarter commentators have pointed out, I wonder how much of the particular arguments, missing arguments, and language style is just due to the fact that it seems most everyone is just fighting over getting Kennedy's vote.

Bill Janson's avatar

So the argument is that the Chief Justice should have (and maybe implicitly did) consider the equities, as required, but thought the merits were so clear that he didn't really have to (i.e., consider the harm to the federal government)? That doesn't really make sense to me. Where does the "in a close case" qualifier come from (not from Nken, certainly)? What is the point of having factors if they can be ignored/read-out of the test at will?

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