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Tim Raben's avatar

I'm curious how the authors (or this blog) feels about the recent discussions about "vest" vs "appropriate" at the founding. With the court rapidly embracing a unitary executive theory and more slowly embracing a unitary judiciary (e.g., CASA) I'm curious if this seemingly important distinction will ever bear any weight.

The full discussion is now in a blog post at the Yale Journal of Regulation (https://www.yalejreg.com/nc/vesting-v-appropriating-in-the-constitution-by-shalev-gad-roisman/) but the short version appears a toward the end of the post:

"This all raises a simple question: If the word “appropriate” means the “act of … assigning to a particular … person, in exclusion of all others,” and the Constitution’s grants of power are meant to signify such exclusivity, then why didn’t the Constitution use the word “appropriate” instead of “vest” when it granted powers to the three branches? Why isn’t there an Article II Appropriations Clause, rather than a Vesting Clause? “The Executive Power shall be appropriated to a President of the United States of America” has a nice ring to it."

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